The ambiguous transfer opening 2NT

The opening 2 of 'majeure précisée', balanced and with 20-21HC, replaces the classic opening of 2NT. The opening 2NT is therefore made available. Here are its main developments:

The opening of 2NT, or 2NT multi, is quite ambiguous. It is used to indicate :
- Either as barrage to in Transfer to a weak hand but with a solid 7-card suiter.
- Or a strong hand, with a 6 cards major suiter, or with a 55 minor or major two-suiter.

For the sake of coherence in keeping with the 2NT barrage opening at , the other weak 7-card barrage openings are also covered on this page, although they are not opened 2NT but as other transfer openings at level 3.
And at the end of the presentation, a summary of the main auctions of the strong and regular opening 2.

Weak 7-card barrage openings

With 7, opening 2NT (Transfer to )
With 7, opening 3 (Transfer to )
With 7, opening 3 (Transfer to )
With 7, opening of (Transfer to )

Any barrage opening include at most 10HCP. Any refusal by responder to complete in the weak 7° suiter is game forcing.

The 2NT(Transfer to ) and 3 (Transfer to ) are more constructive, with a solid 7 cards minor suiter, in the hope of playing 3NT.

The 3 and 3NT openings are not used.

Responses to a minor barrage Opening

The only responses are a completing with a balanced hand and 15-17 HCP, generally with a guard in each of the other three . Example:

2NT(with 7)	3 (completing) *
	3NT(balanced and 15-17HCP **

* Less than 15-17HCP. The opener passes with a weak 7cards minor suiter.

** It's all or nothing. If the responder has 15-17 HCP but only two guards in the 3 other colors, his rebid is difficult, just like after a standard 3 barrage opening. But the risks are mitigated because he will receive the lead. The same applies after a 3 (Transfer to ) opening.

Of course, if the responder has a complete misfit in minor but has a 6 cards major suiter with 15-17 HCP, he can bid his major.

NB: This does not include cases of a good minor fit for game or slam contracts. And it does not include rare exceptions that would be obvious.

Responses to a major barrage Opening

The only possible answers are completing at level 3 with less than 15-17HD and completing at level 4 with at least 15-17HD. Example:

3 (with 7)	3(completing) *
	4(at least 15-17HD

* Less than 15HD. The opener passes.

NB: This does not include the rare exceptions, such as the 3NT contract.

Strong openings with a 6 cards major-suiter or a major 55 two-suiter

The opener bids 2NT as if they had 7. Then after completing to 3:

2NT(presumed with 7)	3 (completing)
Pass (with 7 ) at most 10HCP

3 (with 5 5) and 20-21HCP *

3 (with 6) and 18-19HCP+ *
3 (with 6) and 18-19HCP+ *

4 (with 7/8) **
4 (with 7/8) **

3NT (with 5 5) and 20-21HCP *

4 (with 6 5) and 16-17HCP ***

* Same rebids and distributions as after opening 1NT, but with 2 additional HCP
(See 1NT Opening)

** At most 16-17HCP. With at least 18HCP the opener would have open 2 game forcing

*** In parallel with the 4 rebid of the 1NT opening which shows 6 5 and even strength. (See 1NT Opening)

If instead of completing to 3 the responder has responded 3NT, he has at least 15-17 HCP. Therefore, there is necessarily a slam in a major or NT and the opener must bid his better major.

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Opening 2 diamonds

The opening 2, balanced and with 20-21HCP, replaces the classic opening 2NT and fulfills all the functions of the latter. But in addition it allows the following important and new details:

The responder has a balanced hand without any major suiter

If the responder has a regular hand, without a 5 cards major suiter, he bids a relay response 2 or 2 which requires completing to 2NT :

2	2 (relay) or 2(relay) *
2NT (completing)	Pass or 3NT

* Mandatory completing to 2NT. Responder passes with at most 3/4HCP.
If responder has at least 5HCP, after rectification to 2NT, he bifs 3NT.

NB: The relays 2 and 2 always require completing to 2NT. The choice of the relay is related to the responder's rebid which specifies the meaning of it.
The only case where the choice of the relay has no importance is as here when the responder wants to play 2NT or 3NT.

The responder has a 5 cards major suiter and at least 5HCP

The responder bids a direct Transfer response at level 3, forcing game.
Example with 5 :

2	3 (Texas ) at least 5HCPL *
3 (compl.) fit
3NT (with 2)

* Game forcing. This precise response is impossible in classical auctions because, had the responder only has 1HCP or 2HCP, it would force the opener to play 3 or 3NT.

Since the fit in major is known from the start by both players, this allows the responder to name his first control straight away if he has a slam ambition, otherwise to conclude at 4

This is also perfect in classical auctions, if the pair has agreed that the response 3 is game forcing, but the contract 3 would then be forbidden when the the responder is weaker, for instance with 2HCP.
No problem in specified major:

Responder has a weak 5 cards major suiter, with at most 2/3 HCP

He makes a relay response by naming the inverse major which requires completing to 2NT by opener. Then, after this 2NT, he makes an indirect Transfer response.
Example with 5 and weak hand:

2	2 (relay)
2NT (complete relay 2)	3 (Transfer to ) weak
3 (complete 3)	Pass

and

2	2 (relay)
2NT (complete relay 2)	3 (Transfer to ) weak
3 (complete 3)	Pass

Responder has a weak 6° minor

If responder has a very weak hand with a 6° minor he makes the response of 2NT, which requires the rectification to 3. Example with JX8542 or QX8542 at for any soup:

2	2NT (presumed weak and 6)
3 (complete 2NT) *	Pass

* Mandatory rectification at 2NT. Forget playing 3 after classical opening 2NT, which would be a Staman
With at least 5/6HCP, the opener would have bidded the direct 3 answer

And with VX8542 or DX8542 at for any soup:

2	Pass (distress)

Forget playing 2 after classical opening 2NT, of course. But forget also playing 3 which would be a transfer to .
With at least 5/6HCP, the opener would have bidded the indirect 3 answer

Responder has a 4 cards major suiter and at least 4/5HCP

He bids a Stayman, but it is an indirect Stayman bid.

The opener bids first the inverse major as relay. The first answer relay 2 then clearly indicates 4 without 4 and the answer relay 2 indicates 4 without 4. After the relay, the opner must always complete to 2NT :

2	2 (relay)
2NT (obligatory)	3 (Stayman) with 4. game forcing
3 (with 4)
3NT (without 4)

and

2	2 (relay)
2NT (obligatory)	3 (Stayman) with 4
3 (with 4 )
3NT (without 4 )

NB : The direct responder's answer 3 is forbidden. If reponder used this answer, when the opener has no fit in the responder' major he would have to rebid 3, and on this 3 the responder would have to bid and play himself 3NT. And if after 3 the responder bidded for instance 3 instead of 3NT, he would indicate a 5 4 two-suiter with at least 9HCP.

Début document

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